linkinpark9812
Plinker
Yes, I know this has been discussed before, I have read through multiple threads and I seem to have a good understanding of it. But was curious on some things and wondering how people (and lawyers) on here interpret them, specifically the IC.
So the two specific conditions. Drawing your weapon without making the simultaneous decision to fire vs. drawing and already making the decision to fire. I am more focused on the first.
Obviously if you are making the decision to already fire, for example, if a guy is robbing a store and he has the gun pointed at the cashier, and your background is clear, and you make the decision to draw and shoot.
However, after reading about a certain situation posted on here, I was becoming more interested in the decision to draw but not fire. Now, I remember someone posting on here the case law about Indiana interpreting pointing a firearm as DEADLY force, and NOT reasonable force, which was originally how i interpreted it (if someone knows it and can post a link, that would be great.
So from my understanding, BOTH are deadly force, so to do either, you must be justified in using deadly force. I don't want to post all the IC's here but I'll post this one.
However, if someone comes up behind me and says "give me your money and I won't hurt you", since he is in the commission of a forcible felony, I can use deadly force. Would that look well in court if I actually shoot him and he is unarmed? probably not. However, if I pull my gun to point at him before making the decision to shoot, I am still using deadly force according to the IC.
So is there this underlying "level of deadly force"? I mean if I pull my gun, it is because I believe I am authorized to use deadly force. However if someone asks "Well, why didn't you shoot?". Seems like you could contradict yourself.
Just my on the topic.
Also, I guess you could technically avoid these problems if you just backed away from the threat with your gun exposed and your hand on it in its holster or out of the holster and pointed at the ground, since there is no brandishing law. That wouldn't necessarily be deadly force, but would it be reasonable force instead or neither?
So the two specific conditions. Drawing your weapon without making the simultaneous decision to fire vs. drawing and already making the decision to fire. I am more focused on the first.
Obviously if you are making the decision to already fire, for example, if a guy is robbing a store and he has the gun pointed at the cashier, and your background is clear, and you make the decision to draw and shoot.
However, after reading about a certain situation posted on here, I was becoming more interested in the decision to draw but not fire. Now, I remember someone posting on here the case law about Indiana interpreting pointing a firearm as DEADLY force, and NOT reasonable force, which was originally how i interpreted it (if someone knows it and can post a link, that would be great.
So from my understanding, BOTH are deadly force, so to do either, you must be justified in using deadly force. I don't want to post all the IC's here but I'll post this one.
So basically if I believe that force is needed to prevent serious bodily injury to me or someone else OR the commission of a forcible felony, I can use deadly force.IC 35-41-3-2
Use of force to protect person or property
Sec. 2. (a) A person is justified in using reasonable force against another person to protect the person or a third person from what the person reasonably believes to be the imminent use of unlawful force. However, a person:
(1) is justified in using deadly force; and
(2) does not have a duty to retreat;
if the person reasonably believes that that force is necessary to prevent serious bodily injury to the person or a third person or the commission of a forcible felony. No person in this state shall be placed in legal jeopardy of any kind whatsoever for protecting the person or a third person by reasonable means necessary.
However, if someone comes up behind me and says "give me your money and I won't hurt you", since he is in the commission of a forcible felony, I can use deadly force. Would that look well in court if I actually shoot him and he is unarmed? probably not. However, if I pull my gun to point at him before making the decision to shoot, I am still using deadly force according to the IC.
So is there this underlying "level of deadly force"? I mean if I pull my gun, it is because I believe I am authorized to use deadly force. However if someone asks "Well, why didn't you shoot?". Seems like you could contradict yourself.
Just my on the topic.
Also, I guess you could technically avoid these problems if you just backed away from the threat with your gun exposed and your hand on it in its holster or out of the holster and pointed at the ground, since there is no brandishing law. That wouldn't necessarily be deadly force, but would it be reasonable force instead or neither?
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