Ok guys, I have a nephew that's had a troubled past, but he seems to be on the straight and narrow now and wants to buy a plinker. A few years ago, he was caught stealing and arrested for theft, which is a class D felony. Now, I know you can't own a gun if you're a felon, but there was a deal worked out and after he completed his probation, his conviction was reduced to a class A misdemeanor, theft. Here's where I'm stumped, Federal law says "18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(1). anyone "who has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year" is barred from possessing a gun". I've read that over and over, and I don't know how to interpret "punishable". In this context, does "punishable" mean that you could be punished by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, or that you were punished by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year? He was convicted of theft, at A-misdemeanor level. Well, theft carries a maximum sentence of 3 years. So is he still barred from buying a gun since the maximum sentence could've been 3 years? Or does the federal law mean if YOUR specific case was punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year (he got one year on probation), then you're barred from ownership? I hope all this makes sense to someone, his father asked me if he was in the clear tonight, and I really didn't (and still don't) know.