A little help please. I have read several explanations of red flag and can't find the answer to my question.
If a judge confirms that a person should not possess guns and orders that the police keep the confiscated guns is the person compensated?
Sooner or later there will be someone that has a larger number of guns or very valuable guns. That person may suffer a significant financial loss if he/she isn't compensated and he/she has committed no crime.
Does the court order the guns sold and proceeds given to the defendant?
Or is the defendant just sol?
If a judge confirms that a person should not possess guns and orders that the police keep the confiscated guns is the person compensated?
Sooner or later there will be someone that has a larger number of guns or very valuable guns. That person may suffer a significant financial loss if he/she isn't compensated and he/she has committed no crime.
Does the court order the guns sold and proceeds given to the defendant?
Or is the defendant just sol?